Belgian midfielder Albert Sambi Lokonga is reportedly not part of Arsenal manager Mikel Arteta’s plans for the rest of the 2022-23 season.

As per Corrierre dello Sport (via The Boot Room), the 22-year-old has ‘no space’ in the Gunners’ blueprint for the ongoing campaign.

Reigning Serie A champions AC Milan are rumored to be interested in Lokonga. The Rossoneri are in search of a defensive midfielder after Franck Kessie departed the club on a free transfer this summer. Aside from the Belgian, Milan are also rumored to be monitoring Hellas Verona midfielder Adrian Tameze.

Lokonga notably enjoyed a solid pre-season for Arsenal, even scoring the final goal in their 4-0 demolition of arch-rivals Chelsea in the USA. However, he played just a solitary minute during their Premier League opener away to Crystal Palace.

The midfielder didn’t come onto the pitch at all during their first home league fixture of the season against Leicester City despite being named on the bench.

Arteta has used a three-man midfield in both games, with Granit Xhaka and Martin Odegaard starting either side of defensive midfielder Thomas Partey. They are likely to be the Spanish tactician’s first-choice trio this season, which could limit Lokonga’s playing time.

The Belgian, who arrived at the Emirates only last summer from RSC Anderlecht, still has four years left on his current contract. He made 24 appearances across all competitions for the Gunners during his debut season, out of which only 16 were starts.